/u/kmnjhb6789's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why, while Russian serfs were exploited and abused in the same way as black slaves in the U.S. and sold like cattle, was there not a broad-based movement by the serfs themselves to liberate their status and demand equality?
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Please tell me about the astonishing fact that the Scottish Parliament reduced coal miners from free men to slaves in 1606 and that this continued until 1799. Isn't that very strange?
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How true are the theories of Peter Kolchin and his colleagues that Russian serfdom was almost equivalent to chattel slavery in the United States?
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Please elaborate on the very strange existence (or concept) of "landless serfs" associated with serfdom in Russia. Is it true that the concept of "landless serfs" is what distinguishes serfdom in Russia from that in the West?
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Differences in depictions in films or novels about slavery in the United States and serfdom in Russia.
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