/u/maproomzibz's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Egypt is said to have been "colonized" by British, due to being a British protectorate. Afghanistan was also a British protectorate from around 1880 to 1919. Why isn't Afghanistan described as being "colonized"? What made Egypt and Afghanistan different in terms of being a protectorate?
343 upvotes
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Why are medieval European states referred to as the name of their land/country, while medieval Asian & North African states are referred to as the name of their ruling dynasty?
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Given that both India and Europe are diverse and had times where it was fragmented into different states, why was Europe not able to ever unite under a single power after Fall of Rome, while India atleast had 6 powers who were able to do it after fall of Mauryans?
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Since Mongols didn't conquer Egypt, why couldn't the Islamic Golden Age continue there, or in North Africa?
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Why aren't Delhi Sultanate and Mughal Empire referred to as "Sultanate of Hindustan" and "Empire of Hindustan", respectively, if the rulers referred to their domains as "Hindustan"?
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why is Afghanistan easily conquerable by Asian powers (Persia, Mongols, Timurids, Mughals) while Western powers (british, Soviets, and US) have hard time conquering it?
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