/u/mcmoor's posts in /r/askhistorians
In the history of Roman and Eastern Roman Empire, it's always noted that Egypt is the most precious province in the empire. So why is in the history of Ottoman Empire it's instead noted that their European lands (Balkan) are the most valued provinces? They all hold both Balkan and Egypt.
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If in time long ago average human lifespan is brought down by lots of child mortality, why do they use it at all?
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If Jerusalem is such a holy and important city, why does almost no one that controls it makes it their capital?
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Since Japanese people didn't always have last name, when does the aversion to use first name to address unfamiliar people begins?
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Are we sure that what happened to Charles II of Spain is because of inbreeding instead of regular genetic defects? I've heard that his sister is quite normal and even intelligent.
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