/u/mcrorigan's posts in /r/AskHistorians
In Blur vs Oasis in the 1990s, Blur were considered middle-class, and Oasis working-class. Was there a similar distinction made between the Beatles and the Rolling Stones in the 1960s?
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In The Road to Wigan Pier, George Orwell refers several times to “fruit-juice drinkers” (who are often also “sandal wearers” and “bearded”). Why was fruit juice associated with this “dreary tribe” in 1930s Britain?
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How did Anglo-Saxons (c.800-1000 AD) regard Roman Britain? Did they consider the Romans to be in some way more “advanced”?
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