/u/oldspice75's posts in /r/AskHistorians
The Mayan civilization had a fully developed writing system but it did not spread or survive to later precolumbian civilizations such as the Aztecs. Why did written language fail to take hold at least in Mesoamerica after the Mayans declined? Were the Aztecs aware of it?
9 upvotes
Mark as read: Add to a list