/u/republic_of_salo's posts in /r/AskHistorians
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"The kings of the Assyrians and even after them those of the Medes showed themselves in public as seldom as possible in order to set up a doubt in the minds of the rabble as to whether they were not in some way more than man" claims Étienne de La Boétie. Where did he get the information?
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Why did the 18th century European translations of East Asian and Indian wisdom books bowdlerize it all into a crude monotheism? It's not as surprising (to a modern reader) that early Arab scholars had to"convert" Aristotle and Plato but why would this still be done in Enlightenment Era Europe?
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Are there areas in history in which non-Western universities, publications and scholars are discussed or regarded as authorities?
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The Hungarian Bolsheviks of 1919 it seems have come to power with the promise to fight a nationalist war against romania. This sounds bizarre! How did they justify it? And how did the nationalists justify toppling them while they were engaged in this war?
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At what point have the ancient Celt been identified with mustached men in tartan capes and torcs around their necks? Is that idea accurate?
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Is there a reason why it was South Central Europe where poetry (Minnesang and Troubadours) flourished in the XI^th - XIII^th centuries?
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In Rome you had two consuls at a time to control each other for corruption. Has it ever been proposed to introduce a system of that sort for the United States?
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