/u/skyeyemx's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Would it have been possible to live through WWII in one of the major nations, while being completely unaffected by the war?
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After the Americas were invaded and colonized by European settlers, how and why did the British colonies specifically (US and Canada) eventually become such predominantly ethnically white, while many of Spain's colonies did not and mostly retained their ethnic composition?
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