/u/thegrapesofraph's posts in /r/askhistorians
Law is usually not retroactive (and, it is often thought, ought not be). Yet in the Nüremberg trials, Nazi war criminals were convicted for 'crimes against humanity', a legal concept that didn't exist before the trials (AFAIK!). How was the retroactive application of this concept justified?
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How accurate is the historical account Marx gives in part VIII of the Capital Vol. 1, 'The primitive accumulation of capital'?
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How accurate is the historical account Marx gives in part VIII of the Capital Vol. 1, 'The primitive accumulation of capital'?
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How much knowledge of Christianity and the Bible did a common person have, say in the 15th century in Western Europe?
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