/u/Southdelhiboi's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Many faiths and cultures have a very pro procreation stance ingrained into them. However these same are practiced by societies which for centuries did not have enough food or other resources. Why would medieval europe with its periodic famines encourage more births?
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Why is British political and economic influence so limited in its former West African colonies when compared to France's standing in equivalent countries? Why is Françafrique a thing yet British Africa is seen as a historical term?
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Why did the French government nationalize the Rothschild bank and bar them from doing business? was it motivated by antisemitic? And if yes how did French antisemitism grow so powerful in the post war period when generally france is viewed as having become less antisemitic?
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Considering it seems he was much more successful in advancing his country why is Seretse Khama less famous than Nkrumah and Sankara? Particularly when discussing major African figures
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How strong were the nobility of ancient Egypt? obviously this would have changed over the years but in general terms was the power of the pharaoh's absolute or were the constantly trying to gain the support of the nobility?
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Why did none of the Arab protectorates, mandates and colonies of Britain join the Commonwealth of Nations? It seems its the only region to opt out of the club on a consistent basis. Furthermore considering there are no Arab states in the organisation why did Israel not join?
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Considering the history between Britain and Ireland why has it not invested in its military or retained a strategic distrust of London? What factors allowed them to trust the UK while a country like Finland remains wary of Russia?
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How did Pan African sentiment become so strong especially compared to Pan-Asian, Pan Hispanic and Pan Arabist sentiment? After all for the latter two there are much more stable foundations (Common/interconnected languages and a shared history) while Asia is if anything less diverse than Africa
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